Ukraine had de facto control over Crimea, if not de jure. Russia had a lease on a naval base, which is where all this stems from. Do you believe in the legal process, have you studied the ICC ruling, or do you just condemn Israel's force and not Putin's? https://www.icc-cpi.int/news/situation-ukraine-icc-judges-issue-arrest-warrants-against-vladimir-vladimirovich-putin-and
"Ukraine had de facto control over Crimea, if not de jure".
That is your argument for Ukraine sovereignty? No will of the people argument? No historic case for Ukraine sovereignty? No cultural or language traditions to call on to further elaborate the argument?
Where did this "de facto" control come from, Steve?
What effect does the admission of no "de jure" control have in relation to your weak as piss argument?
You may not like to admit it, but your entire argument for Ukrainian sovereignty over Crimea relies entirely on the arbitrary decision of Soviet leader, Nikita Krushchev, in 1954. You believe that Crimea is Ukrainian because Krushchev transferred the territory, many say unconstitutionally, to Ukraine arbitrarily and without consultation. If you are left relying on the word of someone that you see as a dictator in an evil empire for the legitimacy of your case-then you have already conceded defeat
