There was not much if any blood found on the soles of June Bambers feet, which is consistent with the claim that there was little or no blood on the soles of Sheila's feet, so what significance if any, can be attached to this?
a lot
people (in this case the prosecution) are trying to have it both ways... sheila's feet were clean, so was 'innocent' - because any moving around the house would end up with them standing in blood etc etc...
Well, ok, maybe June didn't move over the entire house, but IF she stood and walked around a room where at least one person (herself) had been shot, two people shot (fairly likely) or even THREE (less likely , but possible), then surely SHE should have the same blood on her feet that the prosecution are claiming.
Even if not on June's feet, as I've stated in earlier posts:
IF the prosecution claim that sheila ought to have blood on her feet if she's a murderer, then it also stands that Jeremy should have had blood on his feet as the murderer.
Now of course, they couldn't swap his feet / shoes etc (cos they screwed up), but you can reasonably assume some bloodied footprints should show up... or did Jeremy hover?
I don't like this aspect of the prosecution's case... it's not wrong, but it's not applied equally.