it takes a while to read but is it saying in his particular case the dna testing on the sperm would not make any difference anyway because they always knew it probably was not his and could have come from transference.
But in another case they may have released the evidence?
However what if it had belonged to someone she knew well - and not just from someone who happened to use the male changing rooms - would that have not been relevant?
Sorry I do skim read sometimes so I could have misunderstood?